This is an estimate based on your percent correct on our practice tests. The official GED score conversion is not public, so your real score may differ. Scores of 145+ pass; 165+ is College Ready.
Your immune system protects you from pathogens, such as viruses and bacteria, that cause disease. When a pathogen enters the body, white blood cells called B cells make antibodies. Antibodies are proteins that attach to the pathogen and help the body destroy it. Some B cells also become memory cells. Memory cells stay in the body for years. If the same pathogen enters the body again, memory cells recognize it and start making antibodies much more quickly.
A vaccine contains a harmless form or a piece of a pathogen. It trains the immune system to recognize the pathogen without causing the disease.
In a study of a new vaccine, 50 adult volunteers received a first dose on day 0 and a second dose, called a booster, on day 60. Researchers measured the amount of antibody in each volunteer's blood every 10 days, in arbitrary units (AU). The graph shows the average for all 50 volunteers. The dashed line marks 100 AU, the level the researchers consider protective.
According to the graph, about how many days after the booster dose did the average antibody level reach its highest value?
Hint
Find the booster on the time axis first. Then find the highest point that comes after it and count the days between them.
Step-by-step solution
The graph labels the booster at day 60. After the booster, the readings are 250 AU (day 70), 420 AU (day 80), 380 AU (day 90), 320 AU (day 100), 270 AU (day 110) and 230 AU (day 120). The highest of these is 420 AU at day 80.
Step by step:
Find the booster: day 60.
Find the peak after the booster: day 80 (420 AU).
The question asks how many days after the booster, so subtract: 80 - 60 = 20 days.
Correct answer: 20 days.
Choosing 80 days gives the day number on the axis, which counts from the first dose, not from the booster.
Tip: When a question says "after" an event, measure from that event, not from zero. Read the question's starting point before you read the axis.
Question 2 of 34 · Human body and health
Vaccines and the Immune Response
Your immune system protects you from pathogens, such as viruses and bacteria, that cause disease. When a pathogen enters the body, white blood cells called B cells make antibodies. Antibodies are proteins that attach to the pathogen and help the body destroy it. Some B cells also become memory cells. Memory cells stay in the body for years. If the same pathogen enters the body again, memory cells recognize it and start making antibodies much more quickly.
A vaccine contains a harmless form or a piece of a pathogen. It trains the immune system to recognize the pathogen without causing the disease.
In a study of a new vaccine, 50 adult volunteers received a first dose on day 0 and a second dose, called a booster, on day 60. Researchers measured the amount of antibody in each volunteer's blood every 10 days, in arbitrary units (AU). The graph shows the average for all 50 volunteers. The dashed line marks 100 AU, the level the researchers consider protective.
Which statement best explains why the antibody level rose faster and higher after the booster than after the first dose?
Hint
Reread the part of the passage about what some B cells become, and what those cells do when the same pathogen returns.
Step-by-step solution
The passage says some B cells "become memory cells," which "stay in the body for years. If the same pathogen enters the body again, memory cells recognize it and start making antibodies much more quickly."
Step by step:
After the first dose (day 0), the level rose slowly and peaked at only 60 AU on day 20. This is a first-time response: the immune system had never seen this pathogen before.
The first dose also produced memory cells.
The booster (day 60) showed the immune system the same harmless piece of the pathogen again. Memory cells recognized it right away, so the level jumped to 250 AU within 10 days and peaked at 420 AU.
Correct answer: Memory cells formed after the first dose recognized the vaccine and quickly started a stronger response.
Tip: On the GED, a "why" question about data is usually answered by a model or theory stated in the passage. Find the sentence that describes the mechanism (here, memory cells) and match it to the pattern in the graph.
Question 3 of 34 · Human body and health
Fill inVaccines and the Immune Response
Your immune system protects you from pathogens, such as viruses and bacteria, that cause disease. When a pathogen enters the body, white blood cells called B cells make antibodies. Antibodies are proteins that attach to the pathogen and help the body destroy it. Some B cells also become memory cells. Memory cells stay in the body for years. If the same pathogen enters the body again, memory cells recognize it and start making antibodies much more quickly.
A vaccine contains a harmless form or a piece of a pathogen. It trains the immune system to recognize the pathogen without causing the disease.
In a study of a new vaccine, 50 adult volunteers received a first dose on day 0 and a second dose, called a booster, on day 60. Researchers measured the amount of antibody in each volunteer's blood every 10 days, in arbitrary units (AU). The graph shows the average for all 50 volunteers. The dashed line marks 100 AU, the level the researchers consider protective.
The highest average antibody level after the booster was how many times the highest average antibody level after the first dose (before the booster)?
times
Type your answer in the box. Fractions like 3/4 are fine.
Hint
Find the peak value in each part of the graph (before day 60 and after day 60). Then divide the larger by the smaller.
Step-by-step solution
Read the two peaks from the graph.
Step by step:
Before the booster (days 0 to 60), the highest reading is 60 AU at day 20.
After the booster (days 70 to 120), the highest reading is 420 AU at day 80.
"How many times" means divide: \dfrac{420}{60} = 7.
Correct answer: 7 times.
Subtracting (420 - 60 = 360) answers a different question: how much more, not how many times.
Tip: "How many times as large" always means division. Read each value carefully off the gridlines, and check which part of the graph each question is asking about.
Question 4 of 34 · Human body and health
Hot spotVaccines and the Immune Response
Your immune system protects you from pathogens, such as viruses and bacteria, that cause disease. When a pathogen enters the body, white blood cells called B cells make antibodies. Antibodies are proteins that attach to the pathogen and help the body destroy it. Some B cells also become memory cells. Memory cells stay in the body for years. If the same pathogen enters the body again, memory cells recognize it and start making antibodies much more quickly.
A vaccine contains a harmless form or a piece of a pathogen. It trains the immune system to recognize the pathogen without causing the disease.
In a study of a new vaccine, 50 adult volunteers received a first dose on day 0 and a second dose, called a booster, on day 60. Researchers measured the amount of antibody in each volunteer's blood every 10 days, in arbitrary units (AU). The graph shows the average for all 50 volunteers. The dashed line marks 100 AU, the level the researchers consider protective.
Look at the graph in the passage. Click the first data point at which the average antibody level was at or above the protective level.
Click on the figure to mark your answer (or focus it and use the arrow keys).
Hint
The protective level is the dashed line. Move from left to right and stop at the first point that is on or above it.
Step-by-step solution
The passage says the dashed line "marks 100 AU, the level the researchers consider protective."
Step by step:
After the first dose, the readings were 0, 15, 60, 50, 35, 25 and 20 AU. All of them are below the dashed line, so one dose never reached the protective level in this study.
After the booster on day 60, the next reading, at day 70, was 250 AU. That is the first point above 100 AU.
Later points (420 AU at day 80 and so on) are also above the line, but they are not the first.
Correct answer: the data point at day 70 (250 AU).
Tip: For "first" or "last" questions on a graph, scan in time order and stop at the first point that meets the condition. A reference line, like this dashed line, turns the graph into a simple above/below check.
Question 5 of 34 · Human body and health
Measles and Herd Immunity
Measles is a disease caused by a virus. It spreads through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes, and it is one of the most contagious diseases known. Antibiotics, which kill bacteria, do not work against viruses. The best protection against measles is a vaccine, given in two doses during childhood.
Some people cannot be vaccinated, such as babies younger than 12 months and people whose immune systems are weakened by certain illnesses or medicines. These people can still be protected by herd immunity. When a large share of a community is immune, an infected person is unlikely to meet someone the virus can infect, so the disease cannot spread easily. For measles, health experts estimate that about 95% of a community must be immune.
During one outbreak year, a state health department compared five towns. The chart shows each town's vaccination rate (the percent of residents who were fully vaccinated) and the number of measles cases for every 10,000 residents.
Which conclusion is best supported by the chart?
Hint
Check each choice against the numbers on the chart. Watch for choices that go further than the data, or that the data cannot show.
Step-by-step solution
The chart lists five towns in order of vaccination rate: Town A (98%) had 0 cases per 10,000 residents, Town B (95%) had 1, Town C (91%) had 6, Town D (86%) had 19, and Town E (80%) had 42.
Step by step:
As the vaccination rate goes down from Town A to Town E, the case rate goes up every time. This pattern supports the first choice.
The chart gives cases per 10,000 residents, a rate. It says nothing about how many people live in each town, so it cannot show which town is largest.
Town C was vaccinated above 90% (91%) and still had 6 cases per 10,000, so "above 90% prevents every case" is false.
The passage says measles "is a disease caused by a virus," so low vaccination rates do not cause measles; they make it easier for the virus to spread.
Correct answer: Towns with lower vaccination rates had more measles cases per 10,000 residents.
Tip: The best-supported conclusion describes the pattern the data actually show. Eliminate choices with absolute words like every or all that one data point disproves, and choices about things the data never measured.
Question 6 of 34 · Human body and health
Fill inMeasles and Herd Immunity
Measles is a disease caused by a virus. It spreads through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes, and it is one of the most contagious diseases known. Antibiotics, which kill bacteria, do not work against viruses. The best protection against measles is a vaccine, given in two doses during childhood.
Some people cannot be vaccinated, such as babies younger than 12 months and people whose immune systems are weakened by certain illnesses or medicines. These people can still be protected by herd immunity. When a large share of a community is immune, an infected person is unlikely to meet someone the virus can infect, so the disease cannot spread easily. For measles, health experts estimate that about 95% of a community must be immune.
During one outbreak year, a state health department compared five towns. The chart shows each town's vaccination rate (the percent of residents who were fully vaccinated) and the number of measles cases for every 10,000 residents.
Town D has 30,000 residents. Based on the chart, how many measles cases were reported in Town D during the outbreak year?
cases
Type your answer in the box. Fractions like 3/4 are fine.
Hint
The chart gives cases for every 10,000 residents. How many groups of 10,000 are in 30,000?
Step-by-step solution
The chart shows that Town D had 19 cases per 10,000 residents.
Step by step:
Find how many groups of 10,000 people are in Town D: \dfrac{30{,}000}{10{,}000} = 3.
Each group of 10,000 had 19 cases, so multiply: 19 \times 3 = 57.
Correct answer: 57 cases.
A common error is to answer 19, which is the rate for each 10,000 people, not the total for a town of 30,000.
Tip: A rate "per 10,000" (or per 100, per 1,000) lets you compare towns of different sizes. To get an actual count, multiply the rate by the number of groups in the population.
Question 7 of 34 · Human body and health
Measles and Herd Immunity
Measles is a disease caused by a virus. It spreads through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes, and it is one of the most contagious diseases known. Antibiotics, which kill bacteria, do not work against viruses. The best protection against measles is a vaccine, given in two doses during childhood.
Some people cannot be vaccinated, such as babies younger than 12 months and people whose immune systems are weakened by certain illnesses or medicines. These people can still be protected by herd immunity. When a large share of a community is immune, an infected person is unlikely to meet someone the virus can infect, so the disease cannot spread easily. For measles, health experts estimate that about 95% of a community must be immune.
During one outbreak year, a state health department compared five towns. The chart shows each town's vaccination rate (the percent of residents who were fully vaccinated) and the number of measles cases for every 10,000 residents.
In Town A, almost no babies younger than 12 months caught measles, even though they were too young to be vaccinated. Which explanation is best supported by the passage?
Hint
Find the part of the passage that describes people who cannot be vaccinated. How are they protected?
Step-by-step solution
The passage says people who cannot be vaccinated, "such as babies younger than 12 months," can "still be protected by herd immunity. When a large share of a community is immune, an infected person is unlikely to meet someone the virus can infect, so the disease cannot spread easily."
Step by step:
Town A had a 98% vaccination rate, above the "about 95%" experts say is needed for measles.
With almost everyone immune, an infected person in Town A would mostly meet immune people. The virus would have very few chances to reach an unvaccinated baby.
This is exactly the idea of herd immunity, and it fits the chart: Town A had 0 cases per 10,000 residents.
Correct answer: The babies were surrounded by people who were immune, so the virus had little chance to reach them.
Tip: When a question asks you to explain an observation, look for a scientific idea (theory or model) described in the passage that predicts it. Then rule out choices that contradict the passage or that bring in ideas it never supports.
Question 8 of 34 · Human body and health
Drop-downMeasles and Herd Immunity
Measles is a disease caused by a virus. It spreads through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes, and it is one of the most contagious diseases known. Antibiotics, which kill bacteria, do not work against viruses. The best protection against measles is a vaccine, given in two doses during childhood.
Some people cannot be vaccinated, such as babies younger than 12 months and people whose immune systems are weakened by certain illnesses or medicines. These people can still be protected by herd immunity. When a large share of a community is immune, an infected person is unlikely to meet someone the virus can infect, so the disease cannot spread easily. For measles, health experts estimate that about 95% of a community must be immune.
During one outbreak year, a state health department compared five towns. The chart shows each town's vaccination rate (the percent of residents who were fully vaccinated) and the number of measles cases for every 10,000 residents.
Complete the statements using information from the passage.
Measles is caused by a . For this reason, a doctor would expect antibiotics to . To stop measles from spreading easily in a community, about of the people must be immune.
Choose an answer from each menu.
Hint
Each blank has a matching sentence in the first two paragraphs. Find the sentence before choosing.
Step-by-step solution
Blank 1: The passage says, "Measles is a disease caused by a virus." → virus.
Blank 2: The passage says, "Antibiotics, which kill bacteria, do not work against viruses." Because measles is caused by a virus, antibiotics would have no effect on the measles virus.
Blank 3: The passage says, "For measles, health experts estimate that about 95% of a community must be immune." → 95%.
Correct answers: virus; have no effect on the measles virus; 95%.
The 80% choice is Town E's vaccination rate, and that town had the most cases, so 80% was clearly not enough.
Tip: Drop-down items usually build on each other. Get the first blank right (what kind of pathogen), and the second often follows logically (which treatment works against that kind of pathogen).
Question 9 of 34 · Human body and health
Testing Handwashing Methods
Washing hands is one of the simplest ways to stop the spread of disease-causing bacteria and viruses. A student designed an experiment to compare handwashing methods.
Twenty-five volunteers each touched the same door handle. Then each volunteer was assigned one of five treatments, with five volunteers for each treatment. Right after the treatment, each volunteer pressed the fingertips of one hand onto a sterile agar plate, a dish of gel on which bacteria can grow. All plates were sealed and kept at 37 °C for 48 hours. Then the student counted the bacterial colonies on each plate. Each colony is a visible spot that grew from bacteria left on the fingertips.
Every volunteer used water from the same tap at the same temperature and dried their hands with a new paper towel.
Treatment
Average number of colonies
No washing
120
Water only, 5 seconds
95
Water only, 20 seconds
70
Soap and water, 5 seconds
48
Soap and water, 20 seconds
12
What was the purpose of the No washing treatment in this experiment?
Hint
Think about what the other four results are compared with.
Step-by-step solution
The table shows that hands that were not washed at all had an average of 120 colonies. Every washing method can be compared with this number.
Step by step:
The student wants to know how much each washing method reduces bacteria.
To measure a reduction, you need to know how many bacteria were there with no treatment at all.
A group that gets no treatment and is used for comparison is a control group. It gives a baseline.
Correct answer: to show how many bacteria were on the hands without any washing, so the washing methods could be compared with it.
Tip: In GED experiment questions, the group that receives "nothing," "no treatment" or "the usual condition" is almost always the control. Its job is to give a baseline for comparison.
Question 10 of 34 · Human body and health
Testing Handwashing Methods
Washing hands is one of the simplest ways to stop the spread of disease-causing bacteria and viruses. A student designed an experiment to compare handwashing methods.
Twenty-five volunteers each touched the same door handle. Then each volunteer was assigned one of five treatments, with five volunteers for each treatment. Right after the treatment, each volunteer pressed the fingertips of one hand onto a sterile agar plate, a dish of gel on which bacteria can grow. All plates were sealed and kept at 37 °C for 48 hours. Then the student counted the bacterial colonies on each plate. Each colony is a visible spot that grew from bacteria left on the fingertips.
Every volunteer used water from the same tap at the same temperature and dried their hands with a new paper towel.
Treatment
Average number of colonies
No washing
120
Water only, 5 seconds
95
Water only, 20 seconds
70
Soap and water, 5 seconds
48
Soap and water, 20 seconds
12
The student wants to find out how much soap alone changes the number of bacteria left on hands. Which two treatments should she compare?
Hint
In a fair comparison, only one thing differs between the two treatments.
Step-by-step solution
To isolate the effect of one variable, compare two treatments that differ only in that variable.
Step by step:
The variable to test is soap (with soap vs. without soap).
Washing time must be the same in both treatments, or time would also change the result.
"Water only, 20 seconds" (70 colonies) and "Soap and water, 20 seconds" (12 colonies) differ only in soap. (The 5-second pair, 95 vs. 48 colonies, would also work, but it is not a choice.)
The other choices change two things at once (soap and time, or water and soap and time), or they change time only.
Correct answer: Water only, 20 seconds and Soap and water, 20 seconds.
Tip: For "which comparison tests X" questions, list what differs between each pair. The right pair differs in X and nothing else.
Question 11 of 34 · Human body and health
Fill inTesting Handwashing Methods
Washing hands is one of the simplest ways to stop the spread of disease-causing bacteria and viruses. A student designed an experiment to compare handwashing methods.
Twenty-five volunteers each touched the same door handle. Then each volunteer was assigned one of five treatments, with five volunteers for each treatment. Right after the treatment, each volunteer pressed the fingertips of one hand onto a sterile agar plate, a dish of gel on which bacteria can grow. All plates were sealed and kept at 37 °C for 48 hours. Then the student counted the bacterial colonies on each plate. Each colony is a visible spot that grew from bacteria left on the fingertips.
Every volunteer used water from the same tap at the same temperature and dried their hands with a new paper towel.
Treatment
Average number of colonies
No washing
120
Water only, 5 seconds
95
Water only, 20 seconds
70
Soap and water, 5 seconds
48
Soap and water, 20 seconds
12
By what percent did washing with soap and water for 20 seconds reduce the average number of colonies, compared with no washing?
%
Type your answer in the box. Fractions like 3/4 are fine.
Hint
Percent decrease = (original − new) ÷ original × 100. Which treatment gives the original value?
Step-by-step solution
From the table: no washing = 120 colonies; soap and water for 20 seconds = 12 colonies.
Step by step:
Find the decrease: 120 - 12 = 108 colonies.
Divide by the original (no washing) value: \dfrac{108}{120} = 0.9.
Convert to a percent: 0.9 \times 100 = 90\%.
Correct answer: 90%.
A common error is to divide by the new value (108 \div 12 = 9) or to give the percent that remained (12 \div 120 = 10\%).
Tip: For a percent change, always divide by the starting (original) value. The control group is usually the starting value in an experiment.
Question 12 of 34 · Heredity and genetics
An Inherited Disease: Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an inherited disease. It causes thick, sticky mucus to build up in the lungs, which makes lung infections more likely. CF is caused by a recessive allele, f. The normal allele, F, is dominant.
A person with the genotype FF does not have CF.
A person with the genotype Ff does not have CF but is a carrier: this person can pass the f allele to children.
Only a person with the genotype ff has CF.
Each parent passes one of their two alleles to each child, by chance.
The pedigree shows three generations of one family. Squares are males, circles are females, and filled shapes are people who have CF. A horizontal line between two people connects a couple; a vertical line leads down to their children.
What are the genotypes of the two people in Generation I (I-1 and I-2)?
Hint
Their son II-2 has CF. What genotype must he have, and where did each of his alleles come from?
Step-by-step solution
In the pedigree, I-1 and I-2 do not have CF, but their son II-2 has CF (filled square).
Step by step:
The passage says "Only a person with the genotype ff has CF," so II-2 is ff.
"Each parent passes one of their two alleles to each child," so II-2 got one f from I-1 and one f from I-2. Both parents carry at least one f.
Neither parent has CF, so neither is ff. Each must also have an F.
So both parents are Ff (carriers).
Correct answer: Both are Ff.
Tip: In a pedigree, start with the people who show the recessive trait. Their genotype is certain (two recessive alleles), and it tells you that each parent must carry at least one recessive allele.
Question 13 of 34 · Heredity and genetics
Fill inAn Inherited Disease: Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an inherited disease. It causes thick, sticky mucus to build up in the lungs, which makes lung infections more likely. CF is caused by a recessive allele, f. The normal allele, F, is dominant.
A person with the genotype FF does not have CF.
A person with the genotype Ff does not have CF but is a carrier: this person can pass the f allele to children.
Only a person with the genotype ff has CF.
Each parent passes one of their two alleles to each child, by chance.
The pedigree shows three generations of one family. Squares are males, circles are females, and filled shapes are people who have CF. A horizontal line between two people connects a couple; a vertical line leads down to their children.
II-3 and II-4 are expecting another child. What is the probability that this child will have CF? Enter your answer as a percent.
%
Type your answer in the box. Fractions like 3/4 are fine.
Hint
First use their daughter III-2 to work out the genotypes of II-3 and II-4. Then draw a Punnett square.
Step-by-step solution
In the pedigree, II-3 and II-4 do not have CF, but their daughter III-2 has CF.
Step by step:
III-2 has CF, so she is ff. She got one f from each parent.
II-3 and II-4 do not have CF, so each also has an F. Both are Ff.
Punnett square for Ff \times Ff:
F
f
F
FF
Ff
f
Ff
ff
One of the four equally likely boxes is ff: \dfrac{1}{4} = 0.25 = 25\%.
Each child is a new chance event. Having one child with CF does not change the odds for the next child.
Correct answer: 25%.
Tip: A Punnett square gives the probability for each child separately. Past children do not change the odds, just as flipping heads once does not change the next coin flip.
Question 14 of 34 · Heredity and genetics
An Inherited Disease: Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an inherited disease. It causes thick, sticky mucus to build up in the lungs, which makes lung infections more likely. CF is caused by a recessive allele, f. The normal allele, F, is dominant.
A person with the genotype FF does not have CF.
A person with the genotype Ff does not have CF but is a carrier: this person can pass the f allele to children.
Only a person with the genotype ff has CF.
Each parent passes one of their two alleles to each child, by chance.
The pedigree shows three generations of one family. Squares are males, circles are females, and filled shapes are people who have CF. A horizontal line between two people connects a couple; a vertical line leads down to their children.
A student says, "Because II-1 does not have cystic fibrosis, she cannot be a carrier." Which statement best evaluates the student's claim?
Hint
What genotypes can a person have if she does not have CF? What genotypes could II-1 have received from her parents?
Step-by-step solution
The passage says a person with Ff "does not have CF but is a carrier." So not having CF does not rule out being a carrier.
Step by step:
II-1's parents (I-1 and I-2) are both Ff; their son II-2 has CF, so each parent carries f.
A child of Ff \times Ff can be FF, Ff or ff.
II-1 does not have CF, so she is not ff. She could be FF (not a carrier) or Ff (a carrier).
The pedigree does not give enough information to decide between them, so the student's claim that she cannot be a carrier is not supported.
Correct answer: The claim is not supported: II-1 could be FF or Ff, because both of her parents are carriers.
Tip: To evaluate a claim, ask whether the evidence rules out the other possibilities. Words like cannot or must need evidence that eliminates every other option.
Question 15 of 34 · Energy: conservation, transformation, flow
Drop-downRecording Sound Waves
Sound is a mechanical wave. It moves as vibrations that are passed from particle to particle through a material, called a medium, such as air, water or a solid. Because sound needs particles to vibrate, it cannot travel through empty space (a vacuum).
Two properties of a sound wave affect what we hear:
Frequency is the number of vibrations (cycles) per second, measured in hertz (Hz). A higher frequency gives a higher pitch.
Amplitude is the size of the vibration. A larger amplitude gives a louder sound.
The time for one full cycle is the period. The speed of a wave (v), its frequency (f) and its wavelength (\lambda, the length of one full cycle, in meters) are related by the formula
v = f\lambda
In air at room temperature, sound travels at about 340 meters per second (m/s).
A student recorded two musical notes, A and B, with a microphone connected to a computer. The graphs show the first 10 milliseconds (ms) of each recording, drawn on the same scales.
Complete the statement based on the graphs.
Compared with note A, note B has a pitch and is .
Choose an answer from each menu.
Hint
Pitch depends on how many cycles fit in the same time. Loudness depends on how tall the waves are.
Step-by-step solution
The passage says "A higher frequency gives a higher pitch" and "A larger amplitude gives a louder sound."
Blank 1 (pitch): In 10 ms, note A completes 4 cycles and note B completes 8 cycles. Note B vibrates twice as often, so it has the higher frequency → a higher pitch.
Blank 2 (loudness): Note A's waves reach 3 units above and below zero; note B's reach only 1.5 units. Note B has the smaller amplitude → it is quieter.
Correct answers: higher; quieter.
Tip: On a wave graph, frequency shows up as how crowded the waves are (count cycles in the same time), and amplitude shows up as how tall they are. The two properties are independent: a sound can be high and quiet, or low and loud.
Question 16 of 34 · Energy: conservation, transformation, flow
Fill inRecording Sound Waves
Sound is a mechanical wave. It moves as vibrations that are passed from particle to particle through a material, called a medium, such as air, water or a solid. Because sound needs particles to vibrate, it cannot travel through empty space (a vacuum).
Two properties of a sound wave affect what we hear:
Frequency is the number of vibrations (cycles) per second, measured in hertz (Hz). A higher frequency gives a higher pitch.
Amplitude is the size of the vibration. A larger amplitude gives a louder sound.
The time for one full cycle is the period. The speed of a wave (v), its frequency (f) and its wavelength (\lambda, the length of one full cycle, in meters) are related by the formula
v = f\lambda
In air at room temperature, sound travels at about 340 meters per second (m/s).
A student recorded two musical notes, A and B, with a microphone connected to a computer. The graphs show the first 10 milliseconds (ms) of each recording, drawn on the same scales.
Note A has a frequency of 400 Hz. Use the formula and the speed of sound given in the passage. What is the wavelength of note A in air, in meters?
m
Type your answer in the box. Fractions like 3/4 are fine.
Hint
Rearrange v = f\lambda to solve for \lambda. Divide the speed by the frequency.
Step-by-step solution
The passage gives the formula v = f\lambda and says sound travels "at about 340 meters per second" in air.
Step by step:
Solve the formula for wavelength: \lambda = \dfrac{v}{f}.
Multiplying instead (340 \times 400 = 136{,}000) gives an impossible wavelength for an ordinary musical note.
Tip: When you rearrange a formula, check that the answer makes sense. A wavelength for a musical note of less than a meter is reasonable; a wavelength of 136 kilometers is not.
Question 17 of 34 · Energy: conservation, transformation, flow
Hot spotRecording Sound Waves
Sound is a mechanical wave. It moves as vibrations that are passed from particle to particle through a material, called a medium, such as air, water or a solid. Because sound needs particles to vibrate, it cannot travel through empty space (a vacuum).
Two properties of a sound wave affect what we hear:
Frequency is the number of vibrations (cycles) per second, measured in hertz (Hz). A higher frequency gives a higher pitch.
Amplitude is the size of the vibration. A larger amplitude gives a louder sound.
The time for one full cycle is the period. The speed of a wave (v), its frequency (f) and its wavelength (\lambda, the length of one full cycle, in meters) are related by the formula
v = f\lambda
In air at room temperature, sound travels at about 340 meters per second (m/s).
A student recorded two musical notes, A and B, with a microphone connected to a computer. The graphs show the first 10 milliseconds (ms) of each recording, drawn on the same scales.
Note A's wave starts at zero at time 0 and rises first. Click the labeled point (P, Q, R or S) where note A has completed exactly one full cycle.
Click on the figure to mark your answer (or focus it and use the arrow keys).
Hint
One full cycle includes one crest (top) and one trough (bottom), and ends when the wave is back where it started, moving the same way.
Step-by-step solution
A full cycle is the shape that repeats: the wave starts at zero, rises to a crest, falls through zero to a trough, and comes back up to zero, moving upward again.
Step by step:
P (0.625 ms) is the first crest: only one quarter of a cycle.
Q (1.25 ms) is back at zero, but the wave is moving down: only half a cycle (crest only, no trough yet).
R (2.5 ms) is back at zero and moving up again, after one crest and one trough: one full cycle.
S (5 ms) is the end of the second cycle.
So note A's period is 2.5 ms. That matches its 4 cycles in 10 ms: \dfrac{10 \text{ ms}}{4} = 2.5 ms, or 400 cycles per second (400 Hz).
Correct answer: point R.
Tip: A wave crosses zero twice in every cycle. Do not stop at the first zero crossing; a full cycle always contains one crest and one trough.
Question 18 of 34 · Energy: conservation, transformation, flow
Recording Sound Waves
Sound is a mechanical wave. It moves as vibrations that are passed from particle to particle through a material, called a medium, such as air, water or a solid. Because sound needs particles to vibrate, it cannot travel through empty space (a vacuum).
Two properties of a sound wave affect what we hear:
Frequency is the number of vibrations (cycles) per second, measured in hertz (Hz). A higher frequency gives a higher pitch.
Amplitude is the size of the vibration. A larger amplitude gives a louder sound.
The time for one full cycle is the period. The speed of a wave (v), its frequency (f) and its wavelength (\lambda, the length of one full cycle, in meters) are related by the formula
v = f\lambda
In air at room temperature, sound travels at about 340 meters per second (m/s).
A student recorded two musical notes, A and B, with a microphone connected to a computer. The graphs show the first 10 milliseconds (ms) of each recording, drawn on the same scales.
Two astronauts stand a few meters apart on the Moon, which has no air. One astronaut strikes a tuning fork and holds it up in front of her. Without a radio, the other astronaut hears nothing. Which statement best explains this?
Hint
Reread the first paragraph: what does sound need in order to travel?
Step-by-step solution
The passage says sound "moves as vibrations that are passed from particle to particle through a material, called a medium," and that "Because sound needs particles to vibrate, it cannot travel through empty space (a vacuum)."
Step by step:
The tuning fork still vibrates on the Moon.
Normally, the fork pushes on air particles, which push on other air particles, carrying the sound to a listener's ear.
The Moon has no air, so there are no particles between the astronauts to carry the vibrations.
With no medium, the sound wave cannot reach the second astronaut. (Astronauts use radios because radio waves are electromagnetic waves, which do not need a medium.)
Correct answer: Sound is a mechanical wave that needs a medium, and there is no air to carry the vibrations.
Tip: When a question describes a surprising result, look for the passage's basic rule (here: sound needs a medium) and apply it to the new situation.
Question 19 of 34 · Energy: conservation, transformation, flow
Drag and dropLight and the Electromagnetic Spectrum
Light is an electromagnetic wave. Unlike sound, electromagnetic waves do not need a medium. They can travel through empty space at about 300,000 kilometers per second (km/s). That is how sunlight crosses the roughly 150,000,000 km between the Sun and Earth.
Visible light is only a small part of the electromagnetic spectrum, shown in the diagram. All of these waves travel at the same speed in space, but they have different wavelengths. The shorter the wavelength, the higher the frequency and the more energy the wave carries.
Higher-energy waves can harm living things. Ultraviolet (UV) light from the Sun can damage the DNA in skin cells. This causes sunburn and raises the risk of skin cancer. X-rays and gamma rays carry even more energy. The same kind of damage can also be useful: some hospitals use lamps that give off UV light to kill bacteria and viruses on surfaces, because damaged DNA stops these microbes from reproducing.
Use the diagram. Drag the waves into order from lowest energy to highest energy.
Lowest energy
Highest energy
Tap a tile, then tap a box to place it.
Hint
The arrow above the diagram shows which direction energy increases.
Step-by-step solution
The arrow in the diagram points to the right and says "Shorter wavelength, higher frequency, higher energy." So energy increases from left to right across the spectrum.
Step by step:
The order across the diagram is radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays.
Pick out the four waves in the question in that order: microwaves (left), visible light, ultraviolet, gamma rays (far right).
Correct order (lowest to highest energy): microwaves → visible light → ultraviolet → gamma rays.
This also fits the passage: "The shorter the wavelength, the higher the frequency and the more energy the wave carries." Gamma rays have the shortest wavelengths (less than 0.01 nm), and microwaves have the longest of the four (1 mm to 1 m).
Tip: For a diagram with an arrow, read the arrow's label before anything else. It tells you the direction of the trend, so ordering becomes a matter of reading left to right.
Question 20 of 34 · Energy: conservation, transformation, flow
Light and the Electromagnetic Spectrum
Light is an electromagnetic wave. Unlike sound, electromagnetic waves do not need a medium. They can travel through empty space at about 300,000 kilometers per second (km/s). That is how sunlight crosses the roughly 150,000,000 km between the Sun and Earth.
Visible light is only a small part of the electromagnetic spectrum, shown in the diagram. All of these waves travel at the same speed in space, but they have different wavelengths. The shorter the wavelength, the higher the frequency and the more energy the wave carries.
Higher-energy waves can harm living things. Ultraviolet (UV) light from the Sun can damage the DNA in skin cells. This causes sunburn and raises the risk of skin cancer. X-rays and gamma rays carry even more energy. The same kind of damage can also be useful: some hospitals use lamps that give off UV light to kill bacteria and viruses on surfaces, because damaged DNA stops these microbes from reproducing.
A hospital uses ultraviolet (UV) lamps, rather than infrared heat lamps, to disinfect empty patient rooms. Which information from the passage best supports this choice?
Hint
Which choice explains why UV can kill microbes, while infrared cannot?
Step-by-step solution
The passage says "The shorter the wavelength, the higher the frequency and the more energy the wave carries," and that UV light can damage DNA. Hospitals use UV lamps "to kill bacteria and viruses on surfaces, because damaged DNA stops these microbes from reproducing."
Step by step:
The diagram shows UV (10 to 400 nm) has a much shorter wavelength than infrared (700 nm to 1 mm).
Shorter wavelength means more energy, enough to damage DNA.
Damaged DNA stops microbes from reproducing, which is the goal of disinfection.
The other choices are either true but unrelated to killing microbes, or reversed.
Correct answer: UV waves have shorter wavelengths and carry more energy, enough to damage the DNA of microbes.
Tip: "Best supports" means the evidence must connect directly to the claim. A statement can be true (all waves travel at the same speed) and still give no reason for the choice being made.
Question 21 of 34 · Energy: conservation, transformation, flow
Light and the Electromagnetic Spectrum
Light is an electromagnetic wave. Unlike sound, electromagnetic waves do not need a medium. They can travel through empty space at about 300,000 kilometers per second (km/s). That is how sunlight crosses the roughly 150,000,000 km between the Sun and Earth.
Visible light is only a small part of the electromagnetic spectrum, shown in the diagram. All of these waves travel at the same speed in space, but they have different wavelengths. The shorter the wavelength, the higher the frequency and the more energy the wave carries.
Higher-energy waves can harm living things. Ultraviolet (UV) light from the Sun can damage the DNA in skin cells. This causes sunburn and raises the risk of skin cancer. X-rays and gamma rays carry even more energy. The same kind of damage can also be useful: some hospitals use lamps that give off UV light to kill bacteria and viruses on surfaces, because damaged DNA stops these microbes from reproducing.
Using the information in the passage, about how long does it take light from the Sun to reach Earth? Use t = \dfrac{d}{v} (time = distance ÷ speed).
Hint
Divide the distance by the speed to get seconds. Then convert seconds into minutes.
Step-by-step solution
The passage says light travels "at about 300,000 kilometers per second" and crosses "the roughly 150,000,000 km between the Sun and Earth."
Step by step:
Use t = \dfrac{d}{v} = \dfrac{150{,}000{,}000 \text{ km}}{300{,}000 \text{ km/s}}.
Divide: 150{,}000{,}000 \div 300{,}000 = 500 seconds. The unit is seconds because the speed is in km per second.
Convert to minutes: 500 \div 60 \approx 8.3 minutes.
Correct answer: about 8 minutes.
Choosing "about 500 minutes" skips the step of noticing that 500 is in seconds. Choosing "about 0.002 seconds" comes from dividing speed by distance, which flips the formula.
Tip: Always track units. The units of the speed (km per second) tell you the units of the time you calculate (seconds). Convert only after you know what you have.
Question 22 of 34 · Chemical properties and reactions
Drop-downMaking Ammonia for Fertilizer
Ammonia (\text{NH}_3) is one of the most important chemicals made by industry. Most of it is used to make fertilizers that help farmers grow food. Factories make ammonia with the Haber process, in which nitrogen gas from the air reacts with hydrogen gas:
In this and every chemical reaction, atoms are rearranged but are not created or destroyed. So the total mass of the products equals the total mass of the reactants. This is the law of conservation of mass.
The Haber reaction gives off heat. It is also reversible: as ammonia forms, some of it breaks back down into nitrogen and hydrogen, so the gas mixture leaving the reactor is never 100% ammonia. The graph shows the percent of ammonia in the final gas mixture at different temperatures and pressures (atm = atmospheres).
The reaction is extremely slow at low temperatures, even with an iron catalyst, a substance that speeds up a reaction without being used up. Most ammonia factories run at about 450 °C and 200 atm.
Balance the equation for the Haber process by choosing the correct coefficients.
\text{N}_2 + \text{H}_2 → \text{NH}_3
Choose an answer from each menu.
Hint
Count the nitrogen atoms first. Then count the hydrogen atoms on each side.
Step-by-step solution
A balanced equation has the same number of each kind of atom on both sides, because atoms "are not created or destroyed."
Step by step:
Nitrogen: the left side has \text{N}_2 (2 N atoms). Each \text{NH}_3 has 1 N atom, so you need 2\text{NH}_3 to have 2 N atoms.
Hydrogen: 2 \text{NH}_3 contain 2 \times 3 = 6 H atoms. Each \text{H}_2 has 2 H atoms, so you need 3\text{H}_2 (3 \times 2 = 6).
Check: left side 2 N and 6 H; right side 2 N and 6 H. Balanced.
\text{N}_2 + 3\text{H}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NH}_3
Correct answers: 3; 2.
Tip: Balance one element at a time, starting with the element that appears in only one substance on each side. Change only the coefficients (big numbers in front), never the subscripts (small numbers inside a formula).
Question 23 of 34 · Chemical properties and reactions
Making Ammonia for Fertilizer
Ammonia (\text{NH}_3) is one of the most important chemicals made by industry. Most of it is used to make fertilizers that help farmers grow food. Factories make ammonia with the Haber process, in which nitrogen gas from the air reacts with hydrogen gas:
In this and every chemical reaction, atoms are rearranged but are not created or destroyed. So the total mass of the products equals the total mass of the reactants. This is the law of conservation of mass.
The Haber reaction gives off heat. It is also reversible: as ammonia forms, some of it breaks back down into nitrogen and hydrogen, so the gas mixture leaving the reactor is never 100% ammonia. The graph shows the percent of ammonia in the final gas mixture at different temperatures and pressures (atm = atmospheres).
The reaction is extremely slow at low temperatures, even with an iron catalyst, a substance that speeds up a reaction without being used up. Most ammonia factories run at about 450 °C and 200 atm.
According to the graph, which set of conditions gives the highest percent of ammonia in the final gas mixture?
Hint
Find the single highest point on the graph. Read its temperature from the bottom axis and its pressure from the key.
Step-by-step solution
The graph has two lines: the solid red line for 300 atm and the dashed blue line for 100 atm.
Step by step:
Both lines slope down to the right: as temperature rises, the percent of ammonia falls. So the lowest temperature shown (300 °C) gives the most ammonia.
At every temperature, the 300 atm line is above the 100 atm line. So higher pressure gives more ammonia.
The highest point on the graph is at 300 °C and 300 atm: 71%. (At 300 °C and 100 atm it is only 52%; at 600 °C and 300 atm it is only 14%.)
The factory conditions (450 °C and 200 atm) are not plotted, and they are not the conditions with the highest percent.
Correct answer: 300 °C and 300 atm.
Tip: When a graph has two variables (one on the axis, one in the key), work out the effect of each one separately, then combine them.
Question 24 of 34 · Chemical properties and reactions
Making Ammonia for Fertilizer
Ammonia (\text{NH}_3) is one of the most important chemicals made by industry. Most of it is used to make fertilizers that help farmers grow food. Factories make ammonia with the Haber process, in which nitrogen gas from the air reacts with hydrogen gas:
In this and every chemical reaction, atoms are rearranged but are not created or destroyed. So the total mass of the products equals the total mass of the reactants. This is the law of conservation of mass.
The Haber reaction gives off heat. It is also reversible: as ammonia forms, some of it breaks back down into nitrogen and hydrogen, so the gas mixture leaving the reactor is never 100% ammonia. The graph shows the percent of ammonia in the final gas mixture at different temperatures and pressures (atm = atmospheres).
The reaction is extremely slow at low temperatures, even with an iron catalyst, a substance that speeds up a reaction without being used up. Most ammonia factories run at about 450 °C and 200 atm.
The graph shows that lower temperatures give a higher percent of ammonia. Which statement best explains why factories still run the reaction at about 450 °C instead of 300 °C?
Hint
The graph tells you how much ammonia is in the mixture at the end. What does the passage say about how fast the reaction goes?
Step-by-step solution
The graph and the factory choice seem to disagree. The passage gives the missing piece: "The reaction is extremely slow at low temperatures, even with an iron catalyst."
Step by step:
The graph shows the percent of ammonia in the final mixture. At 300 °C that percent is high (52% to 71%).
But the passage says the reaction is extremely slow at low temperatures. A factory that waits a very long time for each batch makes little ammonia per hour.
At about 450 °C, the final mixture has less ammonia (between 16% and 36% on the graph), but the reaction is fast enough to produce much more ammonia each hour.
Factories choose a compromise between how much ammonia the mixture can contain and how fast it forms.
Correct answer: At low temperatures the reaction is too slow, so a factory would make less ammonia each hour even though the final mixture would contain a higher percent.
Tip: When data and a real-world choice seem to conflict, look for a second factor in the passage (speed, cost, safety) that the graph does not show. Reconciling two pieces of information is a common GED Science task.
Question 25 of 34 · Chemical properties and reactions
Fill inMaking Ammonia for Fertilizer
Ammonia (\text{NH}_3) is one of the most important chemicals made by industry. Most of it is used to make fertilizers that help farmers grow food. Factories make ammonia with the Haber process, in which nitrogen gas from the air reacts with hydrogen gas:
In this and every chemical reaction, atoms are rearranged but are not created or destroyed. So the total mass of the products equals the total mass of the reactants. This is the law of conservation of mass.
The Haber reaction gives off heat. It is also reversible: as ammonia forms, some of it breaks back down into nitrogen and hydrogen, so the gas mixture leaving the reactor is never 100% ammonia. The graph shows the percent of ammonia in the final gas mixture at different temperatures and pressures (atm = atmospheres).
The reaction is extremely slow at low temperatures, even with an iron catalyst, a substance that speeds up a reaction without being used up. Most ammonia factories run at about 450 °C and 200 atm.
In a test reactor, 28 kilograms (kg) of nitrogen react completely with 6 kg of hydrogen, and ammonia is the only product. According to the law of conservation of mass, what mass of ammonia forms?
kg
Type your answer in the box. Fractions like 3/4 are fine.
Hint
In a reaction, the total mass of the products equals the total mass of the reactants.
Step-by-step solution
The passage says "the total mass of the products equals the total mass of the reactants. This is the law of conservation of mass."
Step by step:
Reactants: 28 kg of nitrogen + 6 kg of hydrogen.
Total mass of reactants: 28 + 6 = 34 kg.
Both reactants are used up completely, and ammonia is the only product, so the mass of ammonia equals the total mass of the reactants: 34 kg.
Correct answer: 34 kg.
The balanced equation does not change this: \text{N}_2 + 3\text{H}_2 \rightarrow 2\text{NH}_3 rearranges atoms, but every atom of nitrogen and hydrogen ends up in the ammonia.
Tip: Conservation of mass questions are usually simple addition or subtraction. If a product seems to "disappear" or "appear," look for a gas that escaped or came in from the air.
Question 26 of 34 · Chemical properties and reactions
From Limestone to Lime
Lime (calcium oxide, CaO) is used to make cement, steel and glass and to treat drinking water. At a lime plant, the process has several steps:
Large rocks of limestone (calcium carbonate, \text{CaCO}_3) are crushed into smaller pieces.
The pieces are heated in a kiln to about 900 °C. The heat breaks the calcium carbonate down into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas: \text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2. This reaction continues only while heat is supplied.
The carbon dioxide gas leaves the kiln through a tall stack.
The lime is cooled and ground into a fine powder.
Some lime is mixed with water. The lime and water react to form a new substance, calcium hydroxide (slaked lime). This reaction gives off so much heat that some of the water boils.
Lime plants release large amounts of carbon dioxide, both from the reaction in the kiln and from burning fuel to heat the kiln.
A student heats 10.0 grams (g) of pure limestone powder in an open dish until the reaction is complete. The solid left in the dish has a mass of 5.6 g. The student concludes that 4.4 g of matter was destroyed, so the law of conservation of mass does not apply to this reaction. Which statement best evaluates the student's conclusion?
Hint
Look at the products in the passage's equation. Are they all solids that stay in the dish?
Step-by-step solution
The passage gives the reaction \text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2 and says the carbon dioxide is a gas that "leaves the kiln through a tall stack."
Step by step:
The solid left in the dish is calcium oxide (lime): 5.6 g.
The missing mass is 10.0 - 5.6 = 4.4 g.
The other product, carbon dioxide, is a gas. In an open dish it escapes into the air, so the balance does not measure it.
Total products: 5.6 \text{ g CaO} + 4.4 \text{ g CO}_2 = 10.0 g, the same as the reactant. Mass was conserved; it just was not all captured.
Correct answer: The conclusion is wrong, because the missing 4.4 g left the dish as carbon dioxide gas, so the products still have a total mass of 10.0 g.
Tip: When an experiment seems to break the law of conservation of mass, look for a gas that escaped (mass "lost") or a gas from the air that was taken in (mass "gained"). In a closed container, the mass would stay the same.
Question 27 of 34 · Chemical properties and reactions
Drag and dropFrom Limestone to Lime
Lime (calcium oxide, CaO) is used to make cement, steel and glass and to treat drinking water. At a lime plant, the process has several steps:
Large rocks of limestone (calcium carbonate, \text{CaCO}_3) are crushed into smaller pieces.
The pieces are heated in a kiln to about 900 °C. The heat breaks the calcium carbonate down into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas: \text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2. This reaction continues only while heat is supplied.
The carbon dioxide gas leaves the kiln through a tall stack.
The lime is cooled and ground into a fine powder.
Some lime is mixed with water. The lime and water react to form a new substance, calcium hydroxide (slaked lime). This reaction gives off so much heat that some of the water boils.
Lime plants release large amounts of carbon dioxide, both from the reaction in the kiln and from burning fuel to heat the kiln.
Use the passage and what you know. Drag each step at the lime plant into the correct category.
Physical change (no new substance)
Chemical change (new substance forms)
Tap a tile, then tap a box to place it.
Hint
Ask for each step: does a new substance with a new formula form, or does the same substance only change size, shape or state?
Step-by-step solution
A physical change alters the size, shape or state of a substance but does not make a new substance. A chemical change (chemical reaction) rearranges atoms into new substances.
Physical changes:
Crushing limestone rocks: the pieces are smaller, but they are still calcium carbonate.
Grinding lime into a fine powder: still calcium oxide, just smaller pieces.
Some of the water boiling: liquid water becomes water vapor; it is still \text{H}_2\text{O}.
Chemical changes:
Heating limestone in the kiln:\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2, two new substances form.
Mixing lime with water: the passage says they "react to form a new substance, calcium hydroxide (slaked lime)."
Tip: Watch for steps that happen together. The lime-and-water reaction is chemical, but the boiling it causes is physical. Classify each change by itself: new substance or not?
Question 28 of 34 · Structure of the cosmos
The Planets of Our Solar System
Our solar system has eight planets that orbit the Sun. The four inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) are small and rocky. The four outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune) are much larger and are made mostly of gases and ices.
Distances in the solar system are often measured in astronomical units (AU). One AU is the average distance from Earth to the Sun, about 150 million kilometers. A planet's orbital period is the time it takes to travel once around the Sun.
Planet
Average distance from Sun (AU)
Orbital period (Earth years)
Surface gravity (m/s²)
Mercury
0.39
0.24
3.7
Venus
0.72
0.62
8.9
Earth
1.00
1.00
9.8
Mars
1.52
1.88
3.7
Jupiter
5.20
11.86
24.8*
Saturn
9.54
29.46
10.4*
Uranus
19.19
84.01
8.9*
Neptune
30.07
164.79
11.2*
*The outer planets have no solid surface; these values are for the top of the clouds.
An object's weight on a planet, in newtons (N), can be found with W = mg, where m is the object's mass in kilograms and g is the planet's surface gravity in m/s².
The bar graph shows the average temperature at each planet's surface (or cloud tops).
Based on the table, what happens to a planet's orbital period as its average distance from the Sun increases?
Hint
Read down the distance column and the orbital period column together.
Step-by-step solution
The table lists the planets in order of distance from the Sun, from 0.39 AU (Mercury) to 30.07 AU (Neptune).
Step by step:
Read the orbital periods in the same order: 0.24, 0.62, 1.00, 1.88, 11.86, 29.46, 84.01, 164.79 Earth years.
Every value is larger than the one before it.
So as distance increases, the orbital period increases.
Farther planets travel around a much bigger orbit, and they also move more slowly, so they take much longer to go around the Sun.
Correct answer: The orbital period increases.
Tip: To find a trend in a table, check that the pattern holds for every row, not just the first and last. Here it does, with no exceptions.
Question 29 of 34 · Structure of the cosmos
The Planets of Our Solar System
Our solar system has eight planets that orbit the Sun. The four inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) are small and rocky. The four outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune) are much larger and are made mostly of gases and ices.
Distances in the solar system are often measured in astronomical units (AU). One AU is the average distance from Earth to the Sun, about 150 million kilometers. A planet's orbital period is the time it takes to travel once around the Sun.
Planet
Average distance from Sun (AU)
Orbital period (Earth years)
Surface gravity (m/s²)
Mercury
0.39
0.24
3.7
Venus
0.72
0.62
8.9
Earth
1.00
1.00
9.8
Mars
1.52
1.88
3.7
Jupiter
5.20
11.86
24.8*
Saturn
9.54
29.46
10.4*
Uranus
19.19
84.01
8.9*
Neptune
30.07
164.79
11.2*
*The outer planets have no solid surface; these values are for the top of the clouds.
An object's weight on a planet, in newtons (N), can be found with W = mg, where m is the object's mass in kilograms and g is the planet's surface gravity in m/s².
The bar graph shows the average temperature at each planet's surface (or cloud tops).
Venus is almost twice as far from the Sun as Mercury, yet the graph shows that Venus is much hotter. Which additional information would best explain this?
Hint
Distance alone predicts that Venus should be cooler. What could keep heat in, even if less sunlight arrives?
Step-by-step solution
From the table, Venus is 0.72 AU from the Sun and Mercury is 0.39 AU, so Venus is almost twice as far away and receives less sunlight. Yet the graph shows Venus at 464 °C and Mercury at only 167 °C. Distance alone cannot explain this.
Step by step:
A planet's temperature depends on the energy it receives and on how well it holds that energy.
A thick atmosphere rich in carbon dioxide traps heat (a strong greenhouse effect), so heat builds up at the surface.
Mercury has almost no atmosphere, so its heat escapes into space.
The information about Venus's thick carbon dioxide atmosphere is the only choice that explains why the farther planet is hotter.
Correct answer: Venus has a very thick atmosphere, made mostly of carbon dioxide, that traps heat.
Tip: When data break a pattern (an "outlier"), look for a second factor that the data do not show. The best additional information explains the exception without contradicting the rest of the data.
Question 30 of 34 · Structure of the cosmos
Fill inThe Planets of Our Solar System
Our solar system has eight planets that orbit the Sun. The four inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) are small and rocky. The four outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune) are much larger and are made mostly of gases and ices.
Distances in the solar system are often measured in astronomical units (AU). One AU is the average distance from Earth to the Sun, about 150 million kilometers. A planet's orbital period is the time it takes to travel once around the Sun.
Planet
Average distance from Sun (AU)
Orbital period (Earth years)
Surface gravity (m/s²)
Mercury
0.39
0.24
3.7
Venus
0.72
0.62
8.9
Earth
1.00
1.00
9.8
Mars
1.52
1.88
3.7
Jupiter
5.20
11.86
24.8*
Saturn
9.54
29.46
10.4*
Uranus
19.19
84.01
8.9*
Neptune
30.07
164.79
11.2*
*The outer planets have no solid surface; these values are for the top of the clouds.
An object's weight on a planet, in newtons (N), can be found with W = mg, where m is the object's mass in kilograms and g is the planet's surface gravity in m/s².
The bar graph shows the average temperature at each planet's surface (or cloud tops).
A rover has a mass of 900 kg. Use the formula and the table in the passage. What is the rover's weight on Mars, in newtons?
N
Type your answer in the box. Fractions like 3/4 are fine.
Hint
Find Mars's surface gravity in the table, then multiply it by the rover's mass.
Step-by-step solution
The passage gives W = mg, and the table lists the surface gravity of Mars as 3.7 m/s².
Step by step:
Mass: m = 900 kg.
Surface gravity of Mars: g = 3.7 m/s².
Weight: W = 900 \times 3.7 = 3{,}330 N.
Correct answer: 3,330 N.
For comparison, the same rover would weigh 900 \times 9.8 = 8{,}820 N on Earth. Its mass (900 kg) is the same on both planets; only its weight changes, because gravity is weaker on Mars.
Tip: Mass is the amount of matter and does not change from place to place. Weight is the pull of gravity on that mass, so it depends on the planet. Make sure you pick the right row in the table (Mercury and Mars both have 3.7 m/s², which is a good double-check here).
Question 31 of 34 · Structure of the cosmos
The Planets of Our Solar System
Our solar system has eight planets that orbit the Sun. The four inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) are small and rocky. The four outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune) are much larger and are made mostly of gases and ices.
Distances in the solar system are often measured in astronomical units (AU). One AU is the average distance from Earth to the Sun, about 150 million kilometers. A planet's orbital period is the time it takes to travel once around the Sun.
Planet
Average distance from Sun (AU)
Orbital period (Earth years)
Surface gravity (m/s²)
Mercury
0.39
0.24
3.7
Venus
0.72
0.62
8.9
Earth
1.00
1.00
9.8
Mars
1.52
1.88
3.7
Jupiter
5.20
11.86
24.8*
Saturn
9.54
29.46
10.4*
Uranus
19.19
84.01
8.9*
Neptune
30.07
164.79
11.2*
*The outer planets have no solid surface; these values are for the top of the clouds.
An object's weight on a planet, in newtons (N), can be found with W = mg, where m is the object's mass in kilograms and g is the planet's surface gravity in m/s².
The bar graph shows the average temperature at each planet's surface (or cloud tops).
What is the median average distance from the Sun of the eight planets?
Hint
Put the distances in order. With an even number of values, the median is halfway between the two middle values.
Step-by-step solution
The table already lists the distances in order: 0.39, 0.72, 1.00, 1.52, 5.20, 9.54, 19.19, 30.07 AU.
Step by step:
There are 8 values, an even number, so there is no single middle value.
The two middle values are the 4th and 5th: 1.52 AU (Mars) and 5.20 AU (Jupiter).
The median is their mean: \dfrac{1.52 + 5.20}{2} = \dfrac{6.72}{2} = 3.36 AU.
Correct answer: 3.36 AU.
The mean is different: \dfrac{67.63}{8} \approx 8.45 AU. It is pulled up by the very large distances of Uranus and Neptune. The median is not affected by those extreme values.
Tip: For an even number of values, the median is the average of the two middle values. Do not just pick one of them, and do not confuse the median with the mean.
Question 32 of 34 · Structure of the cosmos
Hot spotThe Sunspot Cycle
Sunspots are dark patches on the Sun's surface. They look dark because they are cooler than the surface around them. They form where the Sun's magnetic field is very strong. The number of sunspots rises and falls in a repeating pattern called the solar cycle. Years with the most sunspots are called solar maximum, and years with the fewest are called solar minimum.
When there are many sunspots, the Sun also produces more solar storms: bursts of radiation and clouds of electrically charged particles. When these reach Earth, they can disrupt radio signals, GPS and satellites, damage power grids, and cause bright auroras (the northern and southern lights). Auroras are usually seen only near the North and South Poles, but during strong solar storms they can be seen much farther from the poles.
The graph shows the average number of sunspots observed each year from 1996 to 2024. The values are rounded and based on public records from the Royal Observatory of Belgium.
Look at the graph in the passage. Click the data point for the solar maximum of the cycle that began around 2008 and ended around 2019.
Click on the figure to mark your answer (or focus it and use the arrow keys).
Hint
First find the two low points near 2008 and 2019. Then find the highest point between them.
Step-by-step solution
The passage says "Years with the most sunspots are called solar maximum." The cycle in the question runs from the low near 2008 (about 4 sunspots) to the low near 2019 (about 4 sunspots).
Step by step:
Between 2008 and 2019, the values are 5 (2009), 25 (2010), 81 (2011), 85 (2012), 94 (2013), 113 (2014), 70 (2015), 40 (2016), 22 (2017) and 7 (2018).
The highest of these is 113 in 2014.
The higher point near 2000 (174) belongs to the earlier cycle, and the rising values after 2020 belong to the next cycle.
Correct answer: the data point for 2014.
Tip: With a repeating pattern, first mark where each cycle starts and ends, then search only inside the cycle the question names.
Question 33 of 34 · Structure of the cosmos
The Sunspot Cycle
Sunspots are dark patches on the Sun's surface. They look dark because they are cooler than the surface around them. They form where the Sun's magnetic field is very strong. The number of sunspots rises and falls in a repeating pattern called the solar cycle. Years with the most sunspots are called solar maximum, and years with the fewest are called solar minimum.
When there are many sunspots, the Sun also produces more solar storms: bursts of radiation and clouds of electrically charged particles. When these reach Earth, they can disrupt radio signals, GPS and satellites, damage power grids, and cause bright auroras (the northern and southern lights). Auroras are usually seen only near the North and South Poles, but during strong solar storms they can be seen much farther from the poles.
The graph shows the average number of sunspots observed each year from 1996 to 2024. The values are rounded and based on public records from the Royal Observatory of Belgium.
Solar minimums occurred in about 2008 and about 2019. If the pattern continues, in about which year should the next solar minimum after 2019 occur?
Hint
How many years passed between the two minimums? Add that length to 2019.
Step-by-step solution
The graph shows the low points of the cycle in 2008 (about 4 sunspots) and 2019 (about 4 sunspots).
Step by step:
Length of the cycle: 2019 - 2008 = 11 years.
If the pattern continues, the next minimum should come about 11 years after 2019: 2019 + 11 = 2030.
This is consistent with the graph: the number of sunspots is rising steeply in 2022 to 2024 (83, 125, 155), so the Sun is near a maximum now and still far from the next minimum.
Correct answer: about 2030.
The earlier cycle (1996 to 2008, about 12 years) shows the cycle length varies a little, so "about" matters. The prediction is approximate.
Tip: To predict from a repeating pattern, measure one full cycle (minimum to minimum or maximum to maximum), then add that length to the most recent matching point.
Question 34 of 34 · Earth and its system components
The Sunspot Cycle
Sunspots are dark patches on the Sun's surface. They look dark because they are cooler than the surface around them. They form where the Sun's magnetic field is very strong. The number of sunspots rises and falls in a repeating pattern called the solar cycle. Years with the most sunspots are called solar maximum, and years with the fewest are called solar minimum.
When there are many sunspots, the Sun also produces more solar storms: bursts of radiation and clouds of electrically charged particles. When these reach Earth, they can disrupt radio signals, GPS and satellites, damage power grids, and cause bright auroras (the northern and southern lights). Auroras are usually seen only near the North and South Poles, but during strong solar storms they can be seen much farther from the poles.
The graph shows the average number of sunspots observed each year from 1996 to 2024. The values are rounded and based on public records from the Royal Observatory of Belgium.
A news report claims: "People in the northern United States were more likely to see auroras in 2001 than in 2008." Which statement best evaluates this claim?
Hint
Compare the number of sunspots in the two years. Then use the passage to connect sunspots to auroras.
Step-by-step solution
The passage links sunspots to auroras step by step: "When there are many sunspots, the Sun also produces more solar storms," and "during strong solar storms [auroras] can be seen much farther from the poles."
Step by step:
From the graph: 2001 had about 170 sunspots; 2008 had about 4.
More sunspots → more solar storms (passage).
More strong storms → more chances for auroras to be seen far from the poles, such as in the northern United States (passage).
So the claim is supported: people there were more likely to see auroras in 2001, near solar maximum, than in 2008, at solar minimum.
Correct answer: The claim is supported, because 2001 had far more sunspots than 2008, and more sunspots go with more solar storms that make auroras visible farther from the poles.
Tip: To evaluate a claim, build a chain of evidence: data (sunspot numbers) + stated relationships (sunspots → storms → auroras). Reject choices that bring in causes the passage never mentions.